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Dan Trainor wrote:
> Hello, all -
>
> I just had a situation that really, really bothered me.
>
> In the sparse documentation that I could find regarding the assignment
> of subnet masks to Virtual IPs, the synopsis was that the lease specific
> the netmask was for that Virtual IP, the less of a chance that the Real
> Server (In this case, Win2k3R2 w/IIS) would be confused with outbound
> routing.
>
> The situation was basically that I could see requests coming inbound (as
> indicated by ipvsadmin -L --connection) nothing the SYN_RECV flag, but
> nothing outbound. This led be to believe that simply put, the virtual
> IP was not working.
>
> To add some more kerosene to the fire, the request was coming from an IP
> in the same class A subnet as my Virtual IP. As that relates to the
> issue, I do now understand.
>
> However, what I'm still a bit fuzzy on is exactly how the Virtual IP
> netmask relates to the Virtual IP. In the general sense I take away
> from the picture that it may not matter, but it just might. Is this due
> to the type of Real Server and how it handles connections? The subnet
> from which the requests originates? I'm confused.
>
> Thanks again for your time, I sincerely appreciate it.
>
> Thanks
> -dant
Hi -
Duh. It might also be relevant to point out that I was using a Virtual
IP netmask of /16 as to be the least specific - in the beginning. I
solved the problem by assigning a netmask of /25 - which all the other
IPs in the block have, of course.
Thanks
-dant
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