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Hello, all -
I just had a situation that really, really bothered me.
In the sparse documentation that I could find regarding the assignment
of subnet masks to Virtual IPs, the synopsis was that the lease specific
the netmask was for that Virtual IP, the less of a chance that the Real
Server (In this case, Win2k3R2 w/IIS) would be confused with outbound
routing.
The situation was basically that I could see requests coming inbound (as
indicated by ipvsadmin -L --connection) nothing the SYN_RECV flag, but
nothing outbound. This led be to believe that simply put, the virtual
IP was not working.
To add some more kerosene to the fire, the request was coming from an IP
in the same class A subnet as my Virtual IP. As that relates to the
issue, I do now understand.
However, what I'm still a bit fuzzy on is exactly how the Virtual IP
netmask relates to the Virtual IP. In the general sense I take away
from the picture that it may not matter, but it just might. Is this due
to the type of Real Server and how it handles connections? The subnet
from which the requests originates? I'm confused.
Thanks again for your time, I sincerely appreciate it.
Thanks
-dant
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