Hi Joseph
Joseph Mack NA3T wrote:
On Thu, 16 Feb 2006, Rudy Gevaert wrote:
Hello,
I'm trying to set up LVS using Lar's method (as described in the LVS
howto).
this requires that the router send packets for the VIP to only the
director. It makes the router part of the LVS.
VIP=157.193.49.102 VIP=157.193.49.102 arp)
_____________ _____________
| | | |
| realserver | | realserver |
|_____________| |_____________|
| (*) | (**)
(router) (router)
| |
----------------------------------------------> to client
However I don't understand the following:
Can (*) and (**) be on the same network as the VIP ?
The have both the VIP and an address in the address space of the
outgoing router (the ones below the realservers). LVS-Tun is an example
of Lar's method. There the realservers are on other networks with their
own routers. You can do the same thing with LVS-DR if the routing on the
router is setup to only send packets for the VIP to the director.
(We don't have any controls on the router.)
I've tried to set it up but it doesn't work.
What does "it doesn't work" mean?
When I ping the virtual ip adres, RS1 or RS2 answer.
when you ping it from where?
Shall I conclude that the not private NIC should be on an other
network that the VIP?
don't understand this question sorry
The director has two nics, one in public subnet A, and one in the
private subnet.
The real servers have two nics too. One in the private subnet, and one
in a public subnet B. Can A equal B?
I have this set up (A equal B), but that doesn't work. If I ping the
VIP I get answers from the real servers.
I was wondering if I had done something wrong, or must A != B?
Thanks in advance,
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Rudy Gevaert e-mail: Rudy.Gevaert@xxxxxxxx
Directie ICT, Afdeling Infrastructuur
Groep Systemen tel: +32 9 264 4734
Universiteit Gent / Ghent University fax: +32 9 264 4994
Krijgslaan 281, gebouw S9, 9000 Gent, Belgie www.UGent.be
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