Re: realserver1 redirects to realserver2 :-(

To: Joseph Mack <mack@xxxxxxxxxxx>
Subject: Re: realserver1 redirects to realserver2 :-(
Cc: Thomas Proell <Thomas.Proell@xxxxxxxxxx>, lvs-users@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx, proellt@xxxxxx
From: Thomas Proell <Thomas.Proell@xxxxxxxxxx>
Date: Mon, 14 Aug 2000 15:48:25 +0200 (MET DST)

> if by "test-client" you mean the machine which is taking the place of
> customers out in user land... you don't have to change arp
> entries on these machines.

O.k. I thought just for handling the arp-problem in the
test-environment. When I set this up for real use, the 
realservers won't be in the same network, so I don't 
have to handle the arp-problem then (so I don't need to 
change customer's arp-tables :-) 
> > Nomally, I don't need a VIP, correct?
> "Normally", only if you are accepting packets by TP

That's true for me now.
> > ifconfig doesn't indicate a VIP on the virtual server at least.
> you mean on the director (the virtual server is the whole setup,
> ie real-servers and director)

Yes, I meant the director. I can't find a X.Y.Z.110 
(that's the VIP) on _any_ machine. 
> > ifconfig doesn't indicate a tunnelling device on the real
> > servers, and that's confusing for me a bit.
> confused the hell out of me too. Julian figured this one out.

I'm glad with that :-)

> You don't have an arp problem with TP. 


> Is telnet in the ipvsadm table, pointing to both real-servers?


> Is the telnet connection to the realserver dependant on having
> a telnet entry in ipvsadm?

Oooop - by god - NO!
My client adresses directly to the realserver? Why? What?



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